Vui lòng bật JavaScript để tiếp tục sử dụng Website!

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc Gia môn Tiếng Anh số 29 của LTTK Education

  1. Chia sẻ trang này

    Tác giả: LTTK CTV
    Đăng lúc: 27/2/19
    Đề bài
    Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
    Question 1:
    My friend is good at mimicking people. He ______ a great impression of Charlie Chaplin.
    A. made B. did
    C. took D. gave
    Question 2: You can ask Matin anything about history. He actually has quite a good _____ for facts.
    A. head B. understanding
    C. knowledge D. ability
    Question 3: His jokes seemed to ______ a treat with his audience, if their laughter was any indication.
    A. go along B. go by
    C. go off D. go down
    Question 4: It was such a sad film that we all were reduced _______ tears at the end.
    A. with B. onto
    C. to D. into
    Question 5: _______ an emergency arise, call 911.
    A. Should B. If
    C. Will D. Were
    Question 6: The baby can't even sit up yet, ______ stand and walk!
    A. but for B. let alone
    C. all but D. rather than
    Question 7: I don’t think that everyone likes the way he makes fun, ______?
    A. don't I B. do I
    C. don’t they D. do they
    Question 8: Unfortunately, the injury may keep him out of football _______. He may never play again.
    A. for good B. now and then
    C. once in a while D. every so often
    Question 9: The two cars for sale were in poor condition, so I didn't buy ______.
    A. neither of them B. either of them
    C. each of them D. none of them
    Question 10: I used to ______ reading comics, but now I've grown out of it.
    A. take a fancy to
    B. keep an eye on
    C. get a kick out of
    D. kick up a fuss about
    Question 11: The evidence suggests that single fathers ______ more likely to work than single mothers.
    A. should be B. must be
    C. be D. are
    Question 12: Little Deon: “This herb smells horrible, mommy!”
    Mommy: “______, it will do you a power of good.”
    A. Come what may
    B. By the by
    C. What is more
    D. Be that as it may
    Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
    Question 13:
    It’s not fair to put all the blame on him. He’s not the only one at fault.
    A. He doesn't deserve to be blamed for everything as there were others involved.
    B. He deserved to be punished, but the others don’t.
    C. It wouldn't be right to punish those who, like him, were not involved.
    D. Only the one who were involved should be punished.
    Question 14: You will have to tell him about it in the end. The longer you put off doing so, the harder it’s going to be.
    A. You can never keep things secret for long, so the best is to tell him about it soon.
    B. Surely it’s better to let him know about it now than wait until he finds out for himself.
    C. He will have to be notified about it, and the sooner the better.
    D. You can’t keep him in the dark about it forever, and telling him will get harder the longer you wait.
    Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
    Question 15:
    A.
    technique B. gazelle
    C. canal D. compass
    Question 16:
    A.
    informative B. preservative
    C. mandatory D. compulsory
    Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
    Question 17:
    A.
    smooth B. sunbath
    C. youth D. cloth
    Question 18:
    A.
    rough B. touchy
    C. southern D. coup
    Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
    Question 19:

    We had about ten people helping (A) us carry our belongings to a van parking (B) outside when there was a sudden crash which made us turn round (C) to find the big mirror lying in pieces (D) on the ground.
    Question 20:
    You should take out (A) insurance for (B) your house from (C) any possible damage. Earthquakes sometimes occur (D) here.
    Question 21:
    In a famous experiment conducted (A) at University of Chicago (B) in 1983, rats kept (C) from sleeping died after two and a half weeks.(D)
    Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 22 to 26.

    The invention of the mobile phone has undoubtedly revolutionized the way people communicate and influenced every aspect of our lives. The issue is whether this technological innovation has done more harm than good.
    In order to (22)______ the question, we must first turn to the type of consumer. Presumably, most parents buy mobile phones for their teenagers to track their whereabouts and ensure their safety. We can also assume that most teenagers want mobile phones to avoid missing out (23)______ social contact. In this context, the advantages are clear. However, we cannot deny the fact that text messages have been used by bullies to intimidate fellow students. There is also (24)______ evidence that texting has affected literacy skills.
    The ubiquitous use of the mobile phone has, (25)______ question, affected adult consumers, too. What employee, on the way home from work, would be reluctant to answer a call from their boss? Apparently, only 18% of us, according to a recent survey, are willing to switch off our mobile phones once we’ve left the office.
    Admittedly, mobile phones can be intrusive but there are obvious benefits to possessing one. Personally speaking, they are invaluable when it comes to making social or business arrangements at short (26)______. According to a recent survey, they also provide their owners with a sense of security in emergency situations.
    In conclusion, mobile phones do have their drawbacks, but these are outweighed by the benefits. I would argue that it is not the tool that chooses its purpose, but the user.
    Question 22:
    A.
    answer B. address
    C. remedy D. put right
    Question 23:
    A.
    in B. to
    C. of D. on
    Question 24:
    A.
    indisputable B. arguable
    C. doubtless D. unhesitating
    Question 25:
    A.
    out of B. without
    C. beyond D. outside
    Question 26:
    A.
    time B. notice
    C. term D. warning
    Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
    Question 27:
    - John: “Oh, I forgot my girlfriend's birthday last week.” - Anne: “______.”
    A. Not on your life.
    B. So I guess you are in the doghouse again.
    C. Sure, knock on wood.
    D. You really should get a life.
    Question 28: - Porter: “I didn’t do too well on my final exams.” - Mary: “______.”
    A. That's a shame!
    B. Don’t mention it!
    C. What a drag!
    D. That will be the day!
    Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
    Question 29:
    The appeal was rejected by the committee, despite the fact that it had been signed by over 5,000 people.
    A. application B. petition
    C. permit D. form
    Question 30: The children were full of beans today, looking forward to their field trip.
    A. eating a lot
    B. hyperactive
    C. melancholy
    D. lively and in high spirits
    Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
    Question 31:
    The device is very sophisticated and should only be operated by someone who is familiar with it.
    A. crude B. advanced
    C. makeshift D. archaic
    Question 32: Relations between the two countries have improved considerably in the last few years.
    A. abolish B. demolish
    C. diminish D. deteriorated
    Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions
    Question 33:
    However much effort he put into it, he will never make a go of the business.
    A. He’s a failure as an a businessman even though he’s extremely hardworking.
    B. No matter how hard he tries, he won’t ever turn that business into a going concern.
    C. The success of the business will depend upon the amount of hard work he puts into it.
    D. Unless he is willing to make more of an effort, the business is never likely to be a success.
    Question 34: The last time I saw Peter was when I ran into him at the station on my way to Glasgow.
    A. I haven't seen Peter since a chance meeting with him at the station when I was setting off for Glasgow
    B. The last time I went to Glasgow, I happened to meet Peter at the station.
    C. When I last saw Peter at the station when I was on my way to Glasgow, I ran after him.
    D. I finally saw Peter at the station when I was on my way to Glasgow.
    Question 35: We got caught in a traffic jam so we were among the last to arrive at the cinema.
    A. The traffic jam prevented us from getting to the cinema.
    B. The traffic was so heavy that everybody arrived at the cinema late.
    C. There was such a congestion on the road that nobody arrived at the cinema on time.
    D. Most people get to the cinema before us as we were held up by the traffic jam.
    Read the following passage and mark the letter A B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
    All foods contain water - cabbage and other leaf vegetables contain as much as 93% water, potatoes and other root vegetables 80%, lean meat 75% and fish anything from 80% to 60% depending on how fatty it is. If this water is removed, the activity of the bacteria which cause food to go bad is checked.
    Fruit is sun-dried in Asia Minor, Greece, Spain and ot her Mediterranean countries, and also in California, South Africa and Australia. The methods used vary, but in general the fruit is spread out on trays in drying yards in the hot sun. In order to prevent darkening, pears, peaches and apricots are exposed to the fumes of burning sulphur before drying. Plums for making prunes, and certain varieties of grapes for making raisins and currants, are dipped in an alkaline solution in order to crack the skins of the fruit slightly and remove their wax coating, so increasing the rate of drying.
    Nowadays most foods are dried mechanically; the conventional method of such dehydration is to put food in chambers through which hot air is blown at temperatures of about 110°C at entry to about 45°C at exit. This is the usual method for drying such things as vegetables, minced meat, and fish.
    Liquids such as milk, coffee, tea, soups and eggs may be dried by pouring them over a heated horizontal steel cylinder or by spraying them into a chamber through which a current of hot air passes. In the first case, the dried material is scraped off the roller as a thin film which is then broken up into small, though still relatively coarse flakes. In the second process it falls to the bottom of the chamber as a fine powder. Where recognizable pieces of meat and vegetables are required, as in soup, the ingredients are dried separately and then mixed.
    Dried foods take up less room and weigh less than the same food packed in cans or frozen, and they do not need to be stored in special conditions. For these reasons they are invaluable to climbers, explorers and soldiers in battle, who have little storage space. They are also popular with housewives because it takes so little time to cook them.
    Question 36: What is the main idea of the passage?
    A. Advantages of dried foods.
    B. Water: the main component of food.
    C. Mechanization of drying foods.
    D. Different methods of drying foods.
    Question 37: The word “checked” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
    A. reduced considerably
    B. put a tick
    C. examined carefully
    D. motivated to develop
    Question 38: In the process of drying certain kinds of fruits, sulphur fumes help ______.
    A. remove their wax coating
    B. kill off bacteria
    C. maintain their color
    D. crack their skin
    Question 39: Nowadays the common method for drying vegetables and minced meat is ______.
    A. spreading them out on trays in drying yards
    B. putting them in chambers and blowing hot air through
    C. dipping them in an alkaline solution
    D. pouring them over a heated horizontal steel cylinder
    Question 40: What does the word “which” in the fourth paragraph refer to?
    A. Vegetables B. Foods
    C. Things D. Chambers
    Question 41: The final product of the process of drying liquids that uses the first method will be ______.
    A. small flakes
    B. fine powder
    C. dried soup
    D. recognizable pieces
    Question 42: According to the passage, dried foods are most useful for ______.
    A. explorers who are underweight
    B. soldiers who are not in battle
    C. people who are on the move
    D. housewives who have little storage space
    Question 43: This passage is mainly ______.
    A. argumentative B. analytical
    C. informative D. fictional
    Read the following passage and mark the letter A B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
    Very few people, groups, or governments oppose globalization in its entirety. Instead, critics of globalization believe aspects of the way globalization operates should be changed. The debate over globalization is about what the best rules are for governing the global economy so that its advantages can grow while its problems can be solved.
    On one side of this debate are those who stress the benefits of removing barriers to international trade and investment, allowing capital to be allocatedmore efficiently and giving consumers greater freedom of choice. With free-market globalization, investment funds can move unimpeded from the rich countries to the developing countries. Consumers can benefit from cheaper products because reduced taxes make goods produced at low cost from faraway places cheaper to buy. Producers of goods gain by selling to a wider market. More competition keeps sellers on their toes and allows ideas and new technology to spread and benefit others.
    On the other side of the debate are critics who see neo-liberal policies as producing greater poverty, inequality, social conflict, cultural destruction, and environmental damage. They say that the most developed nations – the United States, Germany, and Japan – succeeded not because of free trade but because of protectionism and subsidies. They argue that the more recently successful economies of South Korea, Taiwan, and China all had strong state-led development strategies that did not follow neo-liberalism. These critics think that government encouragement of “infant industries” – that is, industries that are just beginning to develop – enables a country to become internationally competitive.
    Furthermore, those who criticize the Washington Consensus suggest that the inflow and outflow of money from speculative investors must be limited to prevent bubbles. These bubbles are characterized by the rapid inflow of foreign funds that bid up domestic stock markets and property values. When the economy cannot sustain such expectation, the bubbles burst as investors panic and pull their money out of the country.
    Protests by what is called the anti-globalization movement are seldom directed against globalization itself but rather against abuses that harm the rights of workers and the environment. The question raised by nongovernmental organizations and protesters at WTO and IMF gatherings is whether globalization will result in a rise of living standards or a race to the bottom as competition takes the form of lowering living standards and undermining environmental regulations.
    One of the key problems of the 21st century will be determining to what extent markets should be regulated to promote fair competition, honest dealing, and fair distribution of public goods on a global scale.
    Question 44: Supporters of free-market globalization point out that
    A. investment will be allocated only to rich countries
    B. taxes that are paid on goods will be increased
    C. there will be less competition among producers
    D. consumers can benefit from cheaper products
    Question 45: The word “allocated” in the passage mostly means
    A. distributed B. solved
    C. removed D. offered
    Question 46: The phrase “keeps sellers on their toes” in the passage mostly means
    A. prevents sellers from selling new products
    B. forces sellers to go bare-footed
    C. makes sellers responsive to any changes
    D. allows sellers to stand on their own feet
    Question 47: According to critics of globalization, several developed countries have become rich because of
    A. their help to developing countries
    B. their neo-liberal policies
    C. their protectionism and subsidies
    D. their prevention of bubbles
    Question 48: The word “undermining” in the passage mostly means
    A. making less effective
    B. obeying
    C. observing
    D. making more effective
    Question 49: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
    A. Critics believe the way globalization operates should be changed.
    B. The anti-globalization movement was set up to end globalization.
    C. Hardly anyone disapproves of globalization in its entirety.
    D. Some Asian countries had strong state-led economic strategies.
    Question 50: The debate over globalization is about how
    A. to spread ideas and strategies for globalization
    B. to govern the global economy for the benefit of the community
    C. to use neo-liberal policies for the benefit of the rich countries
    D. to terminate globalization in its entirety
    Lời giải chi tiết
    12345
    BADCA
    678910
    BDABC
    1112131415
    DDACD
    1617181920
    CADAB
    2122232425
    BADBA
    2627282930
    BBABD
    3132333435
    ADBAD
    3637383940
    DACBD
    4142434445
    ACCDA
    4647484950
    CCABB